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notBob's avatar

Its always seemed self apparent to me that the concept of a jew being the savior of all mankind and the Jewish people becoming Gods chosen people was never an accident. While the bible may have been a Pysop by Rome the jewish people have used it to their advantage over Christians every since.

It seem terribly convenient that the second coming of the physical manifestation of the Christian Messiah requires that the Jewish state be restored. Then if anything attacks that Jewish state it signals the end of the world. It seems like a perfectly arranged set of conditions to favor Zionism in the minds of the christian faithful.

How many Christians are convinced we have to support zionism because the jews are gods chosen people ?

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Tirion's avatar

Whoever wrote the gospels, it seems like a no-brainer that whatever was included in the Bible was edited/authorized/approved by Rome, giving an account of events early in the first century which met the political exigencies of Rome? It’s a classic that one man’s “terrorist/rebel” is another man’s “freedom fighter/liberator of property,” as we know from our narradigm today. For me, “gospel truth” is an oxymoron.

As you know, some say that Jesus had a stronger claim on the throne of Judea than Herod, who was not even Judean. Herod was Idumaean. Although Idumaeans were descendants of Abraham’s people, they were not descendants of Jacob; so they were regarded as foreigners and consequently very unpopular.

If this suggestion about Jesus’s claim to the throne is true, then we could reasonably infer that he believed in the divine right of some to rule over others?

If Jesus believed himself to be the rightful King of Judea it might also explain why he denied being a rebel? How could he be a rebel in his own domain?

As for the curious incident at Gethsemane of the naked youth, according to the British forensic historians, Wilson and Blackett (“Where Jesus Is Buried,” page 123) he was Jesus Bar Abas, son of Jesus, who had been captured by the Roman city guard. Judas, the brother of Jesus, negotiated a deal whereby Jesus senior would surrender himself to the Roman authorities in exchange for Bar Abas in a face-saving formula (which also involved a faked death on the cross). Bar Abas was allowed to run away from the Garden when Jesus was arrested.

Wilson and Blackett make the point that crucifying those who had offended rulers, or those convicted of the crime of insurrection, was centuries old before the time of Jesus; and nailing the victim to the cross was specifically reserved for offenses committed by members of the military or for those guilty of insurrection (page 127). So that’s how Rome wanted it to appear to posterity.

Does the alleged divine right of some to rule over others originate with Jesus? Or much earlier in Sumeria and with the Nephilim, biblical offspring of the "sons of God" and the "daughters of men" and their descendants?

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